ISTQB Sample Paper - 1
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
ISTQB Sample Paper - 1
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-
a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
ISTQB Sample Paper - 1
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-
Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-
Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
ISTQB Sample Paper - 1
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-
i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?
i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-
a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
a) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-
i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
39. In case of Large Systems :-
a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as
a) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
ISTQB Sample Paper - 1
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
Sample-1
Answer Key
1 c 11 c 21 a 31 a
2 a 12 a 22 a 32 c
3 a 13 c 23 a 33 d
4 d 14 c 24 c 34 b
5 d 15 c 25 c 35 c
6 c 16 d 26 b 36 b
7 a 17 a 27 c 37 b
8 b 18 d 28 b 38 b
9 d 19 c 29 a 39 b
10 d 20 b 30 a 40 a
Wednesday, March 31, 2010
Tuesday, March 30, 2010
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(1) What is the foundation of Release Module?
a) Release Folder
b) Release
c) Requirement folder
d) Defects
(2) What constitutes the Release Module?
a) Release name, folder, cycles
b) Release folder, defects, cycles
(3) How many core modules are available in QC9.2?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
(4) What best describes Quality Center9.2?
repository
(5) How many buttons are available to create Release Tree in Release Module?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
(6) How do you mark a Test as Template Test?
a) The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
b) The first step in the test must be named template test
c) Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
d) During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
(7) To reuse a Test, is it required that the called test should be a Template Test?
a) yes, only template tests are reusable
b) no, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
c) yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
d) no, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
(8) When can you enter the parameters in a called test?
a) values are assigned from within the calling test
b) values must be assigned when the test is executed
c) values are assigned during test design or execution
d) values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
(9) Once a Test Set is deleted, which contains the tests that you had created, can it be restored?
a) no, once a test is deleted, it is gone
b) yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
c) yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
d) no, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
(10) If you want to notify your project manager that there is in a Test Box there are not enough permissions. What is the best way to do that?
a) Using Alerts
b) using Notification tab
c) sending email
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(11) If the license is made available, then which of the QC modules become available to access. Specify two?
a) Release
b) requirements
c) Business Process Testing
d) Dashboard
e) Open view
(12) What are the important features of a Requirements while adding in QC9.2?
a) Precise
b) Bounded
c) planned
d) defect free
(13) At what stage the testing begins in QC9.2?
a) Release
b) requirements
c) Test plan
d) Test Execution
(14) Where is common toolbar located on QC9.2?
a) Top left hand corner
b) Top right hand corner
c) bottom left hand cornet
d) bottom right hand corner
(15) What information does coverage analysis view show?
Name of Requirement; Direct coverage Status; Coverage Analysis
(16) How many views are available in Defect Module?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
(17) What is the example of indicator column in defect module?
a) attachments
b) defects
c) requirement
(18) How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts in a test set?
a) create test instance on the same test and execute on different host
b) create group of hosts and execute same test
c) can not be done
(19) Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the Defects Grid?
a) select columns
b) show all
(20) Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?
a) release
b) requirements
c)Test plan
d) test lab
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(21) Which module/s allow you to link defects?
a) requirements, test plan
b) release, test plan
c) release test plan, test lab
d) requirements, test plan, test lab
(22) Can you see the QC9.2 version through Tools menu?
NO
(23) What are the two steps performed in Risk Analisys?
a) Impact analysis
b) risk analysis
c) failure probability
d) test timelines
e) testing recources
(24) What level of analysis is done while performing Risk Analysis?
Full, Partial, Basic and None
(25) What data is displayed in Live Analysis graphs?
a) all the tests in the Test Plan
b)all the cycles or releases the test is linked to
c) all the requirements linked to the specified test
d) all the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
(26) Analysis reports are available in which modules?
a) relase, test plan, defects
b) release, defects, test lab
c) Requirements, test plan, test lab
(27) What kind of graphs are available for all the modules in QC9.2?
a) summary and progress
b) summary and trend
c) requirements coverage and progress
d) defect age and summary
(28) Which functional HP tools are supported by QC9.2?
a) HP OpenView
b) HP WinRunner
c) HP QuickTest Professional
d) HP LoadRunner
e) HP Change Control Management
(29) Which link should be clicked to log-on to QC9.2?
a) Quality Center
b) Site administrator
c) Business Process
d) Authenticate
(30) Which module shows the overall status of a project which can be used by Project Managers?
a) Quality Center Foundation
b) Business Process Insight
c) Service Test Component
d) Quality Center Dashboard
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(31) After running macros in excel sheet, which icons of QC are visible?
Export to QC
(32) Defects can be exported in which file format?
a) .xls
b).doc
c).tmp
d).htm
(33) Which data can be imported from external file?
Defect; Test; Requirement
(34) What does " * " mark against Test Script tab indicate in a Test Plan?
a) There is a test script
b) there is no test script
c) this is a manual test
d) test script has been changed
(35) What is a test set tree?
a) Collection of tests to be executed
b) group of automated tests
c) collection of test set folders
(36) When defect is logged then detected by field is taken from.
a) user who has linked with the defect
b) user who has currently logged in
c) user who has executed the test
d) none
(37) When template test is used?
A template test is used to reusable steps and parameters are required.
(38) Using which technique data is generated in Excel Report Generator.
a) SQL Query
b) Data exaction technique
c) import data to excel
(39) What is use of Create Release button?
a) create new release
b) create new release folder
c) create release tree
(40) Why parameter is used in excel report generator?
a) enables the report to be saved
b) enables the user to name the report
c) enabled report to be used across projects
d) enables the report to be used for different purposes
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(41) What are characteristic of test case?
Consistence; unique; precise; appropriate
(42) Which are default requirements?
a) Testing
b) functional
c) performace
d) unattached
(43) Defects can be linked to which entities of QC
a) Requiremenrs, defects, test plan, test lab
b) requirements, defects, test plan, test instance
c) release, requirements, defects
d) release, test plan, test lab, defects
(44) Predefined reports/graphs available in which file format.
a) .xls
b) .xml
c).htm
d) .doc
(45) Which name is displayed as designer in details tab of excel report generator be defalut?
a) User who is generating report
b) user who has logged in
c) user who has designed the report
d) any quality center user
(46) Which fields can be modified using details tab of release?
a) name
b) end date
c) cycle name
d) requirement details
(47) Excel macro is installed on your machine then what can be imported in QC.
Requirement; Test Plan; Defect
(48) Word macro is installed on your machine then which toolbar appears in QC.
a) common, requirements, test plan
b) common, test plan, release
c) release, requirements, defects
d) test plan, defects, test lab
(49) Where is the standard toolbar displayed in QC?
Below the Menu Bar
(50) Defects filter can be save using which option.
a) favorites
b) add to favorites
c) save
d) save as
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(51) What is goal of test set?
a) goal of a test plan
b) goal of release
c) goal of cycle
d) goal of requirements
(52) Which tab is used for audit trail of defects
a) Summary
b) history
c) audit trail
d) all defects
(53) Which field or fields are used for searching similar defects
a) Summary and description
b) name and discription
c) history and summary
d) history and description
(54) What information can be viewed from Tools menu ( Select 2)
a) Document Library
b) Change project
c) Add new defect
d) Version of QC
e) knowledge base
(55) Test set tree consists of
a) Automated tests only
b) automated and performance tests
c) only manual tests
d) automated and manual tests
(56) Which of the following can be attached to the requirement
a) Linked requirements
b) system information
c) snap shots
d) release details
e) test plan
(57) Commonly used options for a module are available in which tool bar
a) standard tool bar
b) common toolbar
c) module tool bar
d) system toolbar
(58) What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
a) Netscape
b) Safari
c) Firefox
d) Internet Explorer
(59) Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
a) Test cases
b) repository
c) load test
d) defects
(60) What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
a) Access
b) Sybase
c) Microsoft SQL Server
d) Paradox
e) Oracle
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(61) When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested.'When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select 2)
a) Specify all actual results
b) use parameters in the step names
c) Specify pass and fail condictions for the step names
d) use the numbering system for the step names
e) use consistent terminology throughout the test
(62) What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
a) make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
b) select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
c) select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
d) select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
(63) When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
a) simple
b) consistent
c) repeatable
d) convertible
e) automation
f) appropriate
(64) What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
a) Batch-test
b) Vugen-Test
c) lr-scenario
d) system-test
e) interface-test
f) wr-automated test
(65) How can you create a test plan tree?
a) Convert releases to tests
b) defined test folders and tests manually
c) save automated tests in quality center
d) define test names for each test needed
(66) Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?
a) no, values are assigned at run time
b) yes, if the called test is a template test
c) no, you must delete the called test and call it again
d) yes, right click and choose called test paramters
(67) Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)
a) defects data
b) test set data
c) test plan data
d) releases data
e) test instance data
f) requirements data
(68) What is a fixed column in Defects grid
a) column with static legth
b) column having flexible values
c) non scrolling column
d) column with predefined width
(69) What are testing levels used while doing risk based testing
a) All
b) basic
c) None
d) Unit
e)functional
e)performance
(70) What are the two elements in the test lab module
a) execution flow
b) execution results
c) linked defects
d) requirements
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(71) At what level is a main test tree folder
a) root
b) main
c) subject
d) folder
(72) What is a Requirements tree
a) hierarchical flow of requirements
b) folders with releases, cycles and requirements
(73) if the defect is linked to the test in the test set it has
a) indirect relationship with the test instance
b) direct relationship with the other defects for the test
c) indrect relatioship with other tests in the test set
d) direct relationship with other test set folder
(74) If the requirement is linked to the cycle then it gets linked to
a) only a cycle
b) all cycles in the release
c) release folder
d) all releases in the folder
(75) how many defects can one requirement have
a) only one defect per requirement
b) any number of defects
c) one defect for parent and one defect for child requirement
(76) if there is a dark blue line in the execution flow from one test to another it indicates
a) the test is called from another test
b) test can be executed only when previous test passed
c) test can be executed when previous test finised
d) there is no relationship
(77) what is next step if the test execution fails
a) rerun the test for 5 times
b) cleanup the test environment and rerun
c) clean up and do nothing
(78) what is execution condition for tests in qc
a) pass
b) finish
c) fail
d) done
(79) what type of repository is Quality center
a) file system
b) database
c) web based
d) client server
(80) in requirements what does graph of direct cover status shows
a) coverage status of requirements
b) coverage status of defects
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
(81) defect status display which of the following
a) defect life cycle
b) defect estimation
c) defect age
d) defect coverage
(82) what does private defect data used for
a) only the tests user is working on
b) all users can use this data
c) only users in my group can use this data
d) data is available across all projects
(83) While logging a new defect in QC, the field "Detected By" is
a) Mandatory & must be filled while logging a defect
b) Not Mandatory
c) Mandatory and prepopluated by the name of the user who logged it
(84) When a defect is logged from the manual runner for a test steps, it is automatically linked to
a) test run
b) test set
c) test
d) test instance
(85) In Tools> Excel report generator window, the field designer is populated with the name of
a) site admin
b) Project Manager
c) User who is logged in for the report
d) Person who is designed the report
(86) You can import following with Excel Addin
a) Defect, test plan, test set
b) defect, test plan, requirements
c) Release, defect, test plan
(87) Following type of tests can be exeucted from test lab
a) manual only
b) manual & automated
c) manual & automated but automated cannot follow manual test
(88) What are entities that determine the testing level in QC?
A) Impact analysis
b) risk type
c) Risk analysis
d) failure probability
e) resource availability? (Select any 2)
(89) What are different levels of testing once risk is quantified?
A) Basic,
b) all
c) none.. (Select any 2)
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 1
1) Test management with Quality Center involves …. Phases.
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
2) The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:
A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B) Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C) Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests
3) By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and user group,
you control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the project.
A) True
B) False
4) The …….determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A) User ID
B) User Name
C) User group
D) User SID
5) You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.
A) True
B) False
6) Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.
A) Framework 2.0
B) Framework 1.0
C) Framework 3.0
D) Framework 4.0
7) When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in which
you were last working.
A) True
B) False
8) The ….can change and override a user’s properties or password.
A) Global Administrator
B) Site Administrator
C) Administrator
D) QC Administrator
9) You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define.
How many filters can you define
A) Single item as a filter
B) Two items as a filter
C) Multiple items as filter
D) Five items as filter
10) In the test plan tree, you can define the ……filter for associated test sets as “Open”.
This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.
A) Double
B) Twice
C) Cross
D) Multiple
Answers
1) B,
2) A,
3) A,
4) C,
5) A,
6) A,
7) A,
8) B,
9) C,
10) C
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 2
11) By default, records appear in Quality Center in the
A) Increasing Order
B) Decreasing Order
C) Order in which they were added
D) None of these
12) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed.
A) True
B) False
13) You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.
A) True
B) False
14) You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings) with another user by pasting
them to an e-mail or a text file.
A) True
B) False
15) When you use text search, the search ignores
A) articles (a, an, the)
B) coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or);
C) Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then).
D) All of above
16) You can export the data in a grid as a
A) text file,
B) Microsoft Excel worksheet,
C) Microsoft Word document, or
D) HTML document.
E) All of above
17) …….. alerting functions available in Quality Center
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five
18) The alerting functions in Quality Center are:
A) Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B) Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C) Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D) Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
19) You can create traceability links between ……….. in the Requirements module.
A) Requirements
B) Test Cases
C) Tests
D) Defects
20) You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating ………..in the
Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.
A) Linked Tests
B) Linked Defects
C) Linked Errors
D) Linked Data
Answers
11) C,
12) A,
13) A,
14) B,
15) D,
16) E,
17) C,
18) A,
19) A,
20) B
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 3
21) You can view a list of alerts for a ………… entity.
A) A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B) A test instance in the Execution Grid
C) None of above
D) Both A) & B)
22) A red flag indicates that the alert is.........
A) New
B) Old
C) Follow up
D) Urgent
23) A gray flag indicates that the alert ………..
A) New
B) has already been read
C) Follow up
D) Urgent
24) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name.
Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A) True
B) False
25) Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a ..... extension.
A) .jpeg
B) .gif
C) .doc
D) .jpg
26) A ………..is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A) Personal View
B) My view
C) Favorite View
D) My QC View
27) You save favorite views in ........
A) Favorite folder
B) Personal folder
C) Both A) & B)
D) Public & Private folder
28) You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ……………..
parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) favorites
B) favorites_Depth
C) favorites_view
D) favorites_Path
29) The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:
A) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
B) Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases
30) Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a
A) Requirements cycle
B) Requirements tree
C) Requirements plan
D) Requirements module
Answers
21) D,
22) A,
23) B,
24) A,
25) D,
26) C,
27) D,
28) B,
29) A,
30) B
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 4
31) QA Manager changes a requirement from a ……….. status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.
A) Released
B) Tested
C) Not reviewed
D) None of these
32) You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel,
or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the appropriate………
A) HP Third Party add-in.
B) HP Quality Center add-in.
C) HP Quality Center
D) HP Quality Center License
33) The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a …………….view.
A) Flat
B) Hierarchical
C) Flat-hierarchical
D) Flat non-hierarchical
34) The …………view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test coverage status..
A) Coverage Analysis
B) Coverage Requirements
C) Coverage
D) Coverage Tests
35) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key …….
A) F1
B) F9
C) Ctrl + R
D) Alt + R
36) You can use the ………to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.
A) Script Edit
B) Scriptor Editor
C) Script Editor
D) Script Editing
37) The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your……...
A) requirements
B) All requirements
C) some requirements
D) Tedious requirements
38) You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.
A) true
B) False
39) You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.
A) Search
B) Find
C) Search All
D) Find All
40) You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.
A) Replace
B) Replace All
C) Find & Replace
D) Replace & Find
Answers
31) C,
32) B,
33) D,
34) A,
35) B,
36) C,
37) A,
38) B,
39) B,
40) A
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 5
41) By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the ……. parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) EMAIL_FORMAT
B) EMAIL_FORM
C) MAIL_FORMAT
D) QC_MAIL_FORMAT
42) You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of the below items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.
A) Test coverage.
B) defect linkage.
C) risk-based quality management data
D) All of above
E) None of above
43) You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it..
A) True
B) False
44) You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects linkage..
A)True
B) False
45) There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B) Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D) Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests
46) When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links indicate the other ...... that the change might affect.
A) tests
B) requirements
C) tests & requirements
D) None
47) ...... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. .....links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A) Trace from, Trace to
B) Trace to, Trace from
C) From trace, To trace
D) None of above
48) When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by.......
A) Author of the requirement
B) users authorized by the Author of the requirement
C) all users
D) Administrator
49) while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid..
A) True
B) False
50) While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you understand the many associations and dependencies that exist between the ........ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree structure.
A) Tests
B) Requirements
C) Both
D) None
Answers
41) C,
42) E,
43) A,
44) B,
45) A,
46) B,
47) A,
48) C,
49) B,
50) B
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 6
51) Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.
A) risk analysis or risk assessment
B) risk breakdown or risk assessment
C) risk breakdown or risk review
D) risk analysis or risk evaluation
52) Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the following steps
A) Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
53) An ...... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.
A) analysis
B) assessment
C) Policy
D) Test
54) An ....... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
A) analysis
B) assessment
C) Policy
D) Test
55) For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.
A) Business Probability and Failure Criticality
B) Business Vitality and Failure Probability
C) Business Criticality and Failure Probability
D) Business Criticality and Failure Possibility
56) The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:.....
A) Critical, Important, Nice to Have
B) Critical, Importance, Nice to Have
C) Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D) None of these
57) The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:...
A) High, Standard, Low
B) High, Average, Low
C) High, Medium, Low
D) None of these
58) Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:.
A) Full, Partial, Basic, and Low
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Half, Basic, and None
D) Full, Partial, Critical, and None
59) The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirement’s implementation, without consideration of the requirement’s impact on the business.
A) True
B) False
60) The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is to your business
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) A,
2) D,
3) A,
4) B,
5) C,
6) A,
7) C,
8) B,
9) B,
10) B
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 7
61) During Requirement Risks calculation, the ..... displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis
A) missing assessment link
B) missing assessment field
C) missing assessment value
D) missing assessment relation
62) A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ....... in the testing process.
A) at the beginning
B) at the end
C) at the point
D) at the middle
63) Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.
A) Design Test Steps
B) Design Tests
C) Automate Tests
D) Define Testing Policy Settings
64) You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key .....
A) F7
B) F9
C) F12
D) F11
65) To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ......, and enter the test ID
A) Test > Go to Test
B) Test > find Test
C) Test > search Test
D) Test > link Test
66) In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid
A) True,
B) False
67) You can use the ..... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.
A) text editor
B) script editor
C) scriptor editor
D) scripts editor
68) The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide your application according to ........
A) functionality
B) requirements
C) test plans
D) test modules
69) During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan tree ......
A) at the beginning
B) at the end
C) at any time
D) in the middle
70) Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ......
A) IDs
B) requirements
C) permissions
D) passwords
Answers
1) A,
2) C,
3) D,
4) B,
5) A,
6) A,
7) B,
8) A,
9) C,
10) C
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 8
71) To set a QuickTest Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose ......
A) Template Test
B) Template Tree
C) Template Plan
D) Template
72) You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.
A) True
B) False
73) A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is ....... on your machine.
A) not activated
B) not installed
C) not enabled
D) not set
74) A ...... link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.
A) Link To Test
B) Move To Test
C) Go To Test
D) Test
75) In the Test Plan module, you create ....... by selecting requirements to link to a test.
A) RTM
B) requirements coverage
C) test coverage
D) SRS
76) Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create ...... by selecting tests to link to a requirement.
A) RTM
B) requirements coverage
C) test coverage
D) SRS
77) A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.
A) True
B) False
78) You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this feature using the ........... parameter in Site Administration
A) ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B) ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C) ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D) None of above
79) Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added
requirements coverage, it may already exist.
A) True
B) False
80) You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.
A) True
B) False
Answers
71) A,
72) A,
73) B,
74) C,
75) B,
76) C,
77) B,
78) A,
79) A,
80)
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 9
81) Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test.
A) True
B) False
82) In the Requirements module, you can use the ........ view to examine the status of your requirements.
A) Coverage Analysis
B) Coverage Breakdown
C) Requirements Status
D) Coverage Status
83) By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types: ......
A) Functional, Testing, and Defined.
B) Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C) Functional, System, and Undefined.
D) Functional, Review, and Undefined.
84) You can create design steps for ..........
A) manual and
B) automated tests
C) SRS
D) Both A and B
85) To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ........to the called test and to the tests that call it.
A) Input Values
B) Output Values
C) Parameters
D) None of above
86) You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.
A) True,
B) False
87) If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you are prompted to do so when you call this test from another test, when you add your test to a test set, or when you run your test.
A) True
B) False
88) You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use ...... to access the first step.
A) ALT+LEFT
B) ALT+RIGHT
C) ALT+HOME
D) ALT+ UP
89) While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.
A) A test that is created by Winrunner
B) A test that is executed by Winrunner
C) A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D) None of above
90) To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.
A) True
B) False
Answers
81) B,
82) A,
83) B,
84) D,
85) C,
86) A,
87) A,
88) C,
89) B,
90) B
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 10
91) Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of ....
A) Run Tests Automatically
B) Run Tests Manually
C) Both A and B
D) None of above
92) You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key......
A) F6
B) F7
C) F8
D) F9
93) The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:
A) Test Set and Select Tests
B) Test Select and Set Tests
C) Set Test and Tests Select
D) None of above
94) In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means
A) The date on which the test was first executed.
B) The date on which the test was last executed
C) The date on which the test was executed
D) The date on which the test will be executed in future
95) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid.
A) True
B) False
96) You can organize test execution by creating ........
A) test modules
B) test flows
C) test beds
D) test sets
97) While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a ..........
A) test sets tree
B) test sets flow
C) test sets grid
D) test sets rows
98) By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ..........
A) Level 0 folder
B) Top folder
C) Highest level folder
D) Root folder
99) You can also use the ............. in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a test set.
A) Run Events view
B) Run Events Grid
C) Run Events menu
D) Run Events module
100) You can also drag the test sets between lists.
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) C,
2) D,
3) A,
4) B,
5) A,
6) D,
7) A,
8) D,
9) A,
10) A
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 11
101)
The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control the way your tests are executed.
A) True
B) False
102)
In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test
A) is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.
B) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D) None
103)
You can delete a ....execution condition(s) connected to a test.
A) Single
B) Two
C) Three
D) All
104)
When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is selected
A) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execute Grid)
B) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Executing Grid)
C) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execution Grid)
D) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execution Grind)
105)
You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A) True
B) False
106)
If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.
A) True
B) False
107)
You can run tests automatically on ......
A) Your machine
B) Remote Hosts
C) Both A & B
D) None
108)
To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.
A) Auto Runner
B) Automate Runner
C) Automatic Runner
D) Manual Runner
109)
When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.
A) True
B) False
110)
You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.
A) True
B) False
Answers
101) a,
102) a,
103) d,
104) c,
105) b,
106) a,
107) c,
108) c,
109) a,
110) b
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
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Quality Center Questions 12
111)
You can view the test results from the ...........
A) Test Instance dialog box.
B) Test Properties dialog box
C) Test Instance Properties dialog box
D) None
112)
The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:
A) linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance
B) only linked defects for a test instance
C) linked defects and history for a test instance
D) linked defects and test results for a test instance
113)
Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.
A) True
B) False
114)
In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an automated test instance using the ..... view.
A) Automated
B) Details
C) Run Events
D) Both A & C
115)
You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the ...... button on the sidebar.
A) Track Defects
B) Open Defects
C) Defects
D) Log Defects
116)
To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ....
A) Defects > Defect
B) Defects > Move To Defect
C) Defects > Set Defect
D) Defects > Go To Defect
117)
Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.
A) True
B) False
118)
You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.
A) True
B) False
119)
You can use the ......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.
A) Scripting Editor
B) Notepad Editor
C) QC Editor
D) Script Editor
120)
You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.
A) True
B) False
Answers
111) c,
112) a,
113) a,
114) c,
115) c,
116) d,
117) a,
118) b,
119) d,
120) a
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
Quality Center Questions 13
121)
You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.
A) True
B) False
122)
There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:
A) Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B) Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C) Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D) Find all Defects & Find all Text.
123)
You can update defects directly in the ......, or in the ..... dialog box.
A) Defects Grid
B) Defects Detail
C) Defects Module
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C
124)
You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project administrator in Project Customization.
A) True
B) False
125)
By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send
e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A) M_FORMAT
B) MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C) MAIL_FORM
D) MAIL_FORMAT
126)
You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A) True
B) False
127)
You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A) True
B) False
128)
Quality Center reports can be generated from the
A) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B) Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C) Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.
129)
You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the
A) Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B) Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.
130)
How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports) are available in Requirements module.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 4
Answers
121) A ,
122) C ,
123) D,
124) A ,
125) D ,
126) A ,
127) A ,
128) A ,
129) C ,
130) B
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Quality Center Questions 14
131)
Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the .........
A) Requirements module
B) Test Plan module
C) Test Lab module
D) Defects module
E) Both A & C
F) All of Above
132)
Requirements -Summary Graph
A) Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during a period of time.
B) Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C) Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D) Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.
133)
By default, the graph appears as a
A) pie chart,
B) bar chart
C) Pareto chart
D) Both A & B
134)
You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.
A) True
B) False
135)
You can determine how information appears in the graph using the .....
A) graph toolbar.
B) graph settings
C) graph menu
D) Both A & C
136)
..... graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical representation of data related to test plans and test sets.
A) Live Value
B) Live Analysis
C) Live Analytics
D) Both A & C
137)
You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a .... folder.
A) test subject
B) test set
C) test category
D) Both A & B
138)
The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.
A) True
B) False
139)
The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document containing a project’s requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.
A) True
B) False
140)
The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality Center project.
A) True
B) False
Answers
131) F ,
132) C ,
133) B,
134) A ,
135) A ,
136) B ,
137) D ,
138) A ,
139) A ,
140) A
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Quality Center Questions 15
141)
You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is available for other users in the current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.
A) True
B) False
142)
While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to .... header levels in the table of contents.
A) Seven
B) Eight
C) Nine
D) Ten
143)
You use the ...... pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A) Subject Tree
B) Subject Tests
C) Subject plans
D) Both A & B
144)
You use the ........ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.
A) Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
B) Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C) Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D) Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
145)
You can generate a ...... that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.
A) view project document
B) preview project document
C) pre project document
D) None
146)
You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.
A) True
B) False
147)
You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.
A) True
B) False
148)
Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.
A) True
B) False
149)
After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating .... to extract the data.
A) Test Queries
B) Lotus Queries
C) Excel Macros
D) SQL queries
150)
To view the database type used for your project database, click the... button.
A) Database in use
B) Database Type
C) Get Database
D) Database version
Answers
141) B ,
142) C ,
143) D,
144) D ,
145) B ,
146) A ,
147) B ,
148) B ,
149) D ,
150) B
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Quality Center Questions 16 - Basics
1)
You access Quality Center over the ......, via a Web browser.
A) Internet
B) a corporate intranet
C) Mobile Internet
D) Both A & B
2)
Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application
defects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until
resolution.
A) True
B) False
3)
Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:
A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.
4)
Each Quality Center project is supported by a ...... that stores project information.
A) Root folder
B) Database
C) Flat File
D) Both B & C
5)
Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The ..... determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A) QC group
B) user_Account group
C) Account group
D) user group
6)
You can import data from...... to a Quality Center project.
A) Word or Notepad
B) Word or Wordpad
C) Word or Excel
D) Word or Power Point
7)
You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A) True
B) False
8)
Quality Center prompts you to install ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.
A) Microsoft Java 2.0
B) Microsoft Visio 13.0
C) Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D) Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0
9)
Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects
10)
When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A) True
B) False
11)
The ..... can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.
A) site administer
B) site Controller
C) site Analyser
D) site administrator
12)
Quality Center organizes and displays data in ......:
A) grids
B) trees
C) Folders
D) Both A & B
13)
You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear,
and by changing column size.
A) True
B) False
14)
You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet
the criteria that you define.
A) True
B) False
15)
When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced
....... on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or
defects.
A) Secondary filter
B) Primary filter
C) cross filter
D) Second filter
16)
By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ....
A) Increasing order
B) Decreasing order
C) order in which they were added.
D) order in which they were deleted.
17)
You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the
Clipboard.
A) True
B) False
18)
You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ........
A) Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B) Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C) Requirements and Defects modules.
D) Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.
19)
If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module
A) True
B) False
20)
Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A) True
B) False
21)
You can export the data in a grid as a ......
A) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C) text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D) Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
22)
When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.
A) True
B) False
23)
A ..... indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.
A) Green flag
B) Pink flag
C) red flag
D) Blue flag
24)
Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications. You can use ..... flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.
A) Alert Me
B) follow up
C) follow Me
D) follow
25)
Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.
A) True
B) False
26)
You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.
A) True
B) False
27)
A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A) True
B) False
28)
A ....... is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A) Personal view
B) My view
C) favorite view
D) fav view
29)
By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ....... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) FAVORITES_DEPTH
B) FAVORITES-DEPTH
C) FAVORITE_DEPTH
D) FAVORITE_DEPTHS
30)
You save favorite views in either a .... folder or a ..... folder. Views in a
.... folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ..... folder are accessible only to the user who created them.
A) public, private, public, private
B) Root, Base, Root, Base,
C) locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D) Both B & C
Answers
1) D ,
2) A ,
3) B,
4) B ,
5) D ,
6) C ,
7) A ,
8) D ,
9) B ,
10) A,
11) D ,
12) D,
13) B,
14) A,
15) C,
16) C,
17 B,
18) A,
19) A,
20) A,
21) A,
22) A,
23) C,
24) B,
25) A,
26) A,
27) A,
28) C,
29) A,
30) A
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Quality Center Questions 17 - Release Management
1)
You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in the.......
A) Requirements module
B) Releases module
C) Plan Tests module
D) Either B or C
2)
Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.
A) True
B) False
3)
A release represents a ..... in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution at the same time.
A) group of releases
B) group of changes
C) group of defects
D) group of requests
4)
After defining the release, a QA manager defines ...... A ..... is a set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.
A) cycles, cycle
B) Tries, Try
C) Priorities, Priority
D) Files, File
5)
After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the........ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.
A) Plans
B) groups of plans
C) upcoming modules
D) requirements
6)
After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each..... folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.
A) test sets
B) test set
C) tests set
D) testing set
7)
A ...... is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific test goals.
A) test sets
B) test set
C) tests set
D) testing set
8)
A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing process.
A) True
B) False
9)
While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate ..........
A) release and cycle
B) cycle and release
C) defect and cycle
D) cycle and defect
10)
The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.
A) True
B) False
11)
In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are ..... throughout the release.
A) run
B) covered
C) passed
D) assigned
12)
The ....... helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number ofdefects submitted over the course of a release or cycle.
A) Details tab
B) Attachments tabC) Progress tab
D) Quality tab
13)
The defects arecategorized by ...... in terms of how they impact system operation.
A) Priority
B) severity
14)
You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in thereleases tree.
A) True
B) False
15)
The Releases root folder can also bemoved.
A) True
B) False
16)
You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.
A) True
B) False
17)
Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns theassociated requirements, test set folders, and defects.
A) True
B) False
18)
You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in thereleases tree by dragging it.
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) B ,
2) A ,
3) B,
4) A ,
5) D ,
6) B ,
7) B ,
8) A ,
9) A ,
10) B,
11) B ,
12) D,
13) B,
14) A,
15) B,
16) A,
17 B,
18) A
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Quality Center Questions 18 - Requirements Specification
1)
After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue the
application testing process by specifying ........
A) Requirements
B) Releases
C) Plan Tests
D) Either B or A
2)
Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a requirements ......
A) graph
B) tree
C) Path
D) plan
3)
The requirements ....... is a graphical representation of your requirements specification, displaying the hierarchical relationship between different requirements.
A) graph
B) plan
C) Path
D) tree
4)
For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of ....... in the requirements tree.
A) detailed requirements
B) detailed specifications
C) detailed plans
D) detailed sub-requirements
5)
Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant attachments.
A) True
B) False
6)
After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, ....... shows the other requirements that the change might affect.
A) equality
B) link-ability
C) traceability
D) cross-links
7)
QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases module.
A) True
B) False
8)
The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create ......
A) linkages
B) linked-requirements
C) requirements plan
D) coverage
9)
QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed
status to a ..... status once it is approved.
A) Passed
B) Reviewed
C) Partially reviewed
D) Both B & C
10)
You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ........
A) Microsoft Word
B) Excel
C) other third-party requirement management tools
D) All of above
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11)
In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has
A) attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B) attachments, linked defects, alerts
C) attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D) linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
12)
To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose ............., and enter the requirement ID.
A) Requirements > Find Requirement
B) Requirements > Go to Requirement
C) Requirements > Get Requirement
D) Requirements > Display Requirement
13)
The Requirements ...... view enables you to display requirements in a flat
non-hierarchical view. Each line in the .... displays a separate requirement.
A) File, file
B) hierarchical, hierarchy
c) Grid, Grid
D) Both B & C
14)
The ... Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test ..... status.
A) Plan
B) Requirement
C) Coverage
D) Task
15)
You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ....
A) F6
B) F7
C) F8
D) F9
16)
The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means
A) The current status of the requirement
B) The previous status of the requirement
C) The coming status of the requirement
D) The fixed status of the requirement
17)
You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module.
A) True
B) False
18)
You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.
A) True
B) False
19)
You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.
A) True
B) False
20)
You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.
A) True
B) False
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21)
You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the ....... command.
A) Search
B) Find
C) Look
D) Get
22)
You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
A) True
B) False
23)
You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between projects.
A) True
B) False
24)
Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.
A) True
B) False
25)
Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests
B) Generate a Test from Requirements.
C) Get a test from a requirement
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C
26)
Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A) Trace from, Trace to
B) Trace to, Trace from
C) Trace from select, Trace to select
D) Trace to select, Trace from select
27)
When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.
A) True
B) False
28)
You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ...... tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.
A) traceability
B) Relationships
C) Req-traceability
D) traceability-Req
29)
The ...... feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.
A) Level-based quality management
B) Calculate-based quality management
C) risk-based quality management
D) None of above
30)
You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its .....
A) Business Criticality & Failure Probability
B) Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C) Priority & Severity
D) None of above
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31)
Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:
A) First, second, third, and fourth
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D) Partial,Basic, moderate and Advanced
32)
The ...... link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.
A) missing risk assessment
B) miss assessment
C) missing assessment
D) exclude assessment
Answers
1) A ,
2) B ,
3) D,
4) A ,
5) B ,
6) C ,
7) A ,
8) D ,
9) B ,
10) D,
11) A ,
12) B,
13) C,
14) C,
15) D,
16) A,
17 A,
18) A,
19 A),
20) B,
21) B,
22) A,
23) B,
24) A
25) D ,
26) A,
27) A,
28) B,
29) C,
30) A,
31) B,
32) C
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(1) What is the foundation of Release Module?
a) Release Folder
b) Release
c) Requirement folder
d) Defects
(2) What constitutes the Release Module?
a) Release name, folder, cycles
b) Release folder, defects, cycles
(3) How many core modules are available in QC9.2?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
(4) What best describes Quality Center9.2?
repository
(5) How many buttons are available to create Release Tree in Release Module?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
(6) How do you mark a Test as Template Test?
a) The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
b) The first step in the test must be named template test
c) Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
d) During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
(7) To reuse a Test, is it required that the called test should be a Template Test?
a) yes, only template tests are reusable
b) no, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
c) yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
d) no, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
(8) When can you enter the parameters in a called test?
a) values are assigned from within the calling test
b) values must be assigned when the test is executed
c) values are assigned during test design or execution
d) values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
(9) Once a Test Set is deleted, which contains the tests that you had created, can it be restored?
a) no, once a test is deleted, it is gone
b) yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
c) yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
d) no, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
(10) If you want to notify your project manager that there is in a Test Box there are not enough permissions. What is the best way to do that?
a) Using Alerts
b) using Notification tab
c) sending email
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(11) If the license is made available, then which of the QC modules become available to access. Specify two?
a) Release
b) requirements
c) Business Process Testing
d) Dashboard
e) Open view
(12) What are the important features of a Requirements while adding in QC9.2?
a) Precise
b) Bounded
c) planned
d) defect free
(13) At what stage the testing begins in QC9.2?
a) Release
b) requirements
c) Test plan
d) Test Execution
(14) Where is common toolbar located on QC9.2?
a) Top left hand corner
b) Top right hand corner
c) bottom left hand cornet
d) bottom right hand corner
(15) What information does coverage analysis view show?
Name of Requirement; Direct coverage Status; Coverage Analysis
(16) How many views are available in Defect Module?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
(17) What is the example of indicator column in defect module?
a) attachments
b) defects
c) requirement
(18) How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts in a test set?
a) create test instance on the same test and execute on different host
b) create group of hosts and execute same test
c) can not be done
(19) Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the Defects Grid?
a) select columns
b) show all
(20) Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?
a) release
b) requirements
c)Test plan
d) test lab
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(21) Which module/s allow you to link defects?
a) requirements, test plan
b) release, test plan
c) release test plan, test lab
d) requirements, test plan, test lab
(22) Can you see the QC9.2 version through Tools menu?
NO
(23) What are the two steps performed in Risk Analisys?
a) Impact analysis
b) risk analysis
c) failure probability
d) test timelines
e) testing recources
(24) What level of analysis is done while performing Risk Analysis?
Full, Partial, Basic and None
(25) What data is displayed in Live Analysis graphs?
a) all the tests in the Test Plan
b)all the cycles or releases the test is linked to
c) all the requirements linked to the specified test
d) all the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
(26) Analysis reports are available in which modules?
a) relase, test plan, defects
b) release, defects, test lab
c) Requirements, test plan, test lab
(27) What kind of graphs are available for all the modules in QC9.2?
a) summary and progress
b) summary and trend
c) requirements coverage and progress
d) defect age and summary
(28) Which functional HP tools are supported by QC9.2?
a) HP OpenView
b) HP WinRunner
c) HP QuickTest Professional
d) HP LoadRunner
e) HP Change Control Management
(29) Which link should be clicked to log-on to QC9.2?
a) Quality Center
b) Site administrator
c) Business Process
d) Authenticate
(30) Which module shows the overall status of a project which can be used by Project Managers?
a) Quality Center Foundation
b) Business Process Insight
c) Service Test Component
d) Quality Center Dashboard
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(31) After running macros in excel sheet, which icons of QC are visible?
Export to QC
(32) Defects can be exported in which file format?
a) .xls
b).doc
c).tmp
d).htm
(33) Which data can be imported from external file?
Defect; Test; Requirement
(34) What does " * " mark against Test Script tab indicate in a Test Plan?
a) There is a test script
b) there is no test script
c) this is a manual test
d) test script has been changed
(35) What is a test set tree?
a) Collection of tests to be executed
b) group of automated tests
c) collection of test set folders
(36) When defect is logged then detected by field is taken from.
a) user who has linked with the defect
b) user who has currently logged in
c) user who has executed the test
d) none
(37) When template test is used?
A template test is used to reusable steps and parameters are required.
(38) Using which technique data is generated in Excel Report Generator.
a) SQL Query
b) Data exaction technique
c) import data to excel
(39) What is use of Create Release button?
a) create new release
b) create new release folder
c) create release tree
(40) Why parameter is used in excel report generator?
a) enables the report to be saved
b) enables the user to name the report
c) enabled report to be used across projects
d) enables the report to be used for different purposes
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(41) What are characteristic of test case?
Consistence; unique; precise; appropriate
(42) Which are default requirements?
a) Testing
b) functional
c) performace
d) unattached
(43) Defects can be linked to which entities of QC
a) Requiremenrs, defects, test plan, test lab
b) requirements, defects, test plan, test instance
c) release, requirements, defects
d) release, test plan, test lab, defects
(44) Predefined reports/graphs available in which file format.
a) .xls
b) .xml
c).htm
d) .doc
(45) Which name is displayed as designer in details tab of excel report generator be defalut?
a) User who is generating report
b) user who has logged in
c) user who has designed the report
d) any quality center user
(46) Which fields can be modified using details tab of release?
a) name
b) end date
c) cycle name
d) requirement details
(47) Excel macro is installed on your machine then what can be imported in QC.
Requirement; Test Plan; Defect
(48) Word macro is installed on your machine then which toolbar appears in QC.
a) common, requirements, test plan
b) common, test plan, release
c) release, requirements, defects
d) test plan, defects, test lab
(49) Where is the standard toolbar displayed in QC?
Below the Menu Bar
(50) Defects filter can be save using which option.
a) favorites
b) add to favorites
c) save
d) save as
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(51) What is goal of test set?
a) goal of a test plan
b) goal of release
c) goal of cycle
d) goal of requirements
(52) Which tab is used for audit trail of defects
a) Summary
b) history
c) audit trail
d) all defects
(53) Which field or fields are used for searching similar defects
a) Summary and description
b) name and discription
c) history and summary
d) history and description
(54) What information can be viewed from Tools menu ( Select 2)
a) Document Library
b) Change project
c) Add new defect
d) Version of QC
e) knowledge base
(55) Test set tree consists of
a) Automated tests only
b) automated and performance tests
c) only manual tests
d) automated and manual tests
(56) Which of the following can be attached to the requirement
a) Linked requirements
b) system information
c) snap shots
d) release details
e) test plan
(57) Commonly used options for a module are available in which tool bar
a) standard tool bar
b) common toolbar
c) module tool bar
d) system toolbar
(58) What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
a) Netscape
b) Safari
c) Firefox
d) Internet Explorer
(59) Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
a) Test cases
b) repository
c) load test
d) defects
(60) What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
a) Access
b) Sybase
c) Microsoft SQL Server
d) Paradox
e) Oracle
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(61) When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested.'When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select 2)
a) Specify all actual results
b) use parameters in the step names
c) Specify pass and fail condictions for the step names
d) use the numbering system for the step names
e) use consistent terminology throughout the test
(62) What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
a) make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
b) select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
c) select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
d) select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
(63) When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
a) simple
b) consistent
c) repeatable
d) convertible
e) automation
f) appropriate
(64) What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
a) Batch-test
b) Vugen-Test
c) lr-scenario
d) system-test
e) interface-test
f) wr-automated test
(65) How can you create a test plan tree?
a) Convert releases to tests
b) defined test folders and tests manually
c) save automated tests in quality center
d) define test names for each test needed
(66) Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?
a) no, values are assigned at run time
b) yes, if the called test is a template test
c) no, you must delete the called test and call it again
d) yes, right click and choose called test paramters
(67) Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)
a) defects data
b) test set data
c) test plan data
d) releases data
e) test instance data
f) requirements data
(68) What is a fixed column in Defects grid
a) column with static legth
b) column having flexible values
c) non scrolling column
d) column with predefined width
(69) What are testing levels used while doing risk based testing
a) All
b) basic
c) None
d) Unit
e)functional
e)performance
(70) What are the two elements in the test lab module
a) execution flow
b) execution results
c) linked defects
d) requirements
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(71) At what level is a main test tree folder
a) root
b) main
c) subject
d) folder
(72) What is a Requirements tree
a) hierarchical flow of requirements
b) folders with releases, cycles and requirements
(73) if the defect is linked to the test in the test set it has
a) indirect relationship with the test instance
b) direct relationship with the other defects for the test
c) indrect relatioship with other tests in the test set
d) direct relationship with other test set folder
(74) If the requirement is linked to the cycle then it gets linked to
a) only a cycle
b) all cycles in the release
c) release folder
d) all releases in the folder
(75) how many defects can one requirement have
a) only one defect per requirement
b) any number of defects
c) one defect for parent and one defect for child requirement
(76) if there is a dark blue line in the execution flow from one test to another it indicates
a) the test is called from another test
b) test can be executed only when previous test passed
c) test can be executed when previous test finised
d) there is no relationship
(77) what is next step if the test execution fails
a) rerun the test for 5 times
b) cleanup the test environment and rerun
c) clean up and do nothing
(78) what is execution condition for tests in qc
a) pass
b) finish
c) fail
d) done
(79) what type of repository is Quality center
a) file system
b) database
c) web based
d) client server
(80) in requirements what does graph of direct cover status shows
a) coverage status of requirements
b) coverage status of defects
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(81) defect status display which of the following
a) defect life cycle
b) defect estimation
c) defect age
d) defect coverage
(82) what does private defect data used for
a) only the tests user is working on
b) all users can use this data
c) only users in my group can use this data
d) data is available across all projects
(83) While logging a new defect in QC, the field "Detected By" is
a) Mandatory & must be filled while logging a defect
b) Not Mandatory
c) Mandatory and prepopluated by the name of the user who logged it
(84) When a defect is logged from the manual runner for a test steps, it is automatically linked to
a) test run
b) test set
c) test
d) test instance
(85) In Tools> Excel report generator window, the field designer is populated with the name of
a) site admin
b) Project Manager
c) User who is logged in for the report
d) Person who is designed the report
(86) You can import following with Excel Addin
a) Defect, test plan, test set
b) defect, test plan, requirements
c) Release, defect, test plan
(87) Following type of tests can be exeucted from test lab
a) manual only
b) manual & automated
c) manual & automated but automated cannot follow manual test
(88) What are entities that determine the testing level in QC?
A) Impact analysis
b) risk type
c) Risk analysis
d) failure probability
e) resource availability? (Select any 2)
(89) What are different levels of testing once risk is quantified?
A) Basic,
b) all
c) none.. (Select any 2)
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Quality Center Questions 1
1) Test management with Quality Center involves …. Phases.
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
2) The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:
A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B) Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C) Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests
3) By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and user group,
you control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the project.
A) True
B) False
4) The …….determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A) User ID
B) User Name
C) User group
D) User SID
5) You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.
A) True
B) False
6) Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.
A) Framework 2.0
B) Framework 1.0
C) Framework 3.0
D) Framework 4.0
7) When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in which
you were last working.
A) True
B) False
8) The ….can change and override a user’s properties or password.
A) Global Administrator
B) Site Administrator
C) Administrator
D) QC Administrator
9) You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define.
How many filters can you define
A) Single item as a filter
B) Two items as a filter
C) Multiple items as filter
D) Five items as filter
10) In the test plan tree, you can define the ……filter for associated test sets as “Open”.
This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.
A) Double
B) Twice
C) Cross
D) Multiple
Answers
1) B,
2) A,
3) A,
4) C,
5) A,
6) A,
7) A,
8) B,
9) C,
10) C
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Quality Center Questions 2
11) By default, records appear in Quality Center in the
A) Increasing Order
B) Decreasing Order
C) Order in which they were added
D) None of these
12) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed.
A) True
B) False
13) You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.
A) True
B) False
14) You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings) with another user by pasting
them to an e-mail or a text file.
A) True
B) False
15) When you use text search, the search ignores
A) articles (a, an, the)
B) coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or);
C) Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then).
D) All of above
16) You can export the data in a grid as a
A) text file,
B) Microsoft Excel worksheet,
C) Microsoft Word document, or
D) HTML document.
E) All of above
17) …….. alerting functions available in Quality Center
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five
18) The alerting functions in Quality Center are:
A) Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B) Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C) Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D) Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
19) You can create traceability links between ……….. in the Requirements module.
A) Requirements
B) Test Cases
C) Tests
D) Defects
20) You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating ………..in the
Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.
A) Linked Tests
B) Linked Defects
C) Linked Errors
D) Linked Data
Answers
11) C,
12) A,
13) A,
14) B,
15) D,
16) E,
17) C,
18) A,
19) A,
20) B
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Quality Center Questions 3
21) You can view a list of alerts for a ………… entity.
A) A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B) A test instance in the Execution Grid
C) None of above
D) Both A) & B)
22) A red flag indicates that the alert is.........
A) New
B) Old
C) Follow up
D) Urgent
23) A gray flag indicates that the alert ………..
A) New
B) has already been read
C) Follow up
D) Urgent
24) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name.
Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A) True
B) False
25) Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a ..... extension.
A) .jpeg
B) .gif
C) .doc
D) .jpg
26) A ………..is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A) Personal View
B) My view
C) Favorite View
D) My QC View
27) You save favorite views in ........
A) Favorite folder
B) Personal folder
C) Both A) & B)
D) Public & Private folder
28) You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ……………..
parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) favorites
B) favorites_Depth
C) favorites_view
D) favorites_Path
29) The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:
A) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
B) Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases
30) Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a
A) Requirements cycle
B) Requirements tree
C) Requirements plan
D) Requirements module
Answers
21) D,
22) A,
23) B,
24) A,
25) D,
26) C,
27) D,
28) B,
29) A,
30) B
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Quality Center Questions 4
31) QA Manager changes a requirement from a ……….. status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.
A) Released
B) Tested
C) Not reviewed
D) None of these
32) You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel,
or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the appropriate………
A) HP Third Party add-in.
B) HP Quality Center add-in.
C) HP Quality Center
D) HP Quality Center License
33) The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a …………….view.
A) Flat
B) Hierarchical
C) Flat-hierarchical
D) Flat non-hierarchical
34) The …………view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test coverage status..
A) Coverage Analysis
B) Coverage Requirements
C) Coverage
D) Coverage Tests
35) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key …….
A) F1
B) F9
C) Ctrl + R
D) Alt + R
36) You can use the ………to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.
A) Script Edit
B) Scriptor Editor
C) Script Editor
D) Script Editing
37) The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your……...
A) requirements
B) All requirements
C) some requirements
D) Tedious requirements
38) You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.
A) true
B) False
39) You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.
A) Search
B) Find
C) Search All
D) Find All
40) You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.
A) Replace
B) Replace All
C) Find & Replace
D) Replace & Find
Answers
31) C,
32) B,
33) D,
34) A,
35) B,
36) C,
37) A,
38) B,
39) B,
40) A
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Quality Center Questions 5
41) By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the ……. parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) EMAIL_FORMAT
B) EMAIL_FORM
C) MAIL_FORMAT
D) QC_MAIL_FORMAT
42) You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of the below items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.
A) Test coverage.
B) defect linkage.
C) risk-based quality management data
D) All of above
E) None of above
43) You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it..
A) True
B) False
44) You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects linkage..
A)True
B) False
45) There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B) Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D) Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests
46) When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links indicate the other ...... that the change might affect.
A) tests
B) requirements
C) tests & requirements
D) None
47) ...... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. .....links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A) Trace from, Trace to
B) Trace to, Trace from
C) From trace, To trace
D) None of above
48) When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by.......
A) Author of the requirement
B) users authorized by the Author of the requirement
C) all users
D) Administrator
49) while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid..
A) True
B) False
50) While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you understand the many associations and dependencies that exist between the ........ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree structure.
A) Tests
B) Requirements
C) Both
D) None
Answers
41) C,
42) E,
43) A,
44) B,
45) A,
46) B,
47) A,
48) C,
49) B,
50) B
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Quality Center Questions 6
51) Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.
A) risk analysis or risk assessment
B) risk breakdown or risk assessment
C) risk breakdown or risk review
D) risk analysis or risk evaluation
52) Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the following steps
A) Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
53) An ...... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.
A) analysis
B) assessment
C) Policy
D) Test
54) An ....... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
A) analysis
B) assessment
C) Policy
D) Test
55) For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.
A) Business Probability and Failure Criticality
B) Business Vitality and Failure Probability
C) Business Criticality and Failure Probability
D) Business Criticality and Failure Possibility
56) The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:.....
A) Critical, Important, Nice to Have
B) Critical, Importance, Nice to Have
C) Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D) None of these
57) The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:...
A) High, Standard, Low
B) High, Average, Low
C) High, Medium, Low
D) None of these
58) Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:.
A) Full, Partial, Basic, and Low
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Half, Basic, and None
D) Full, Partial, Critical, and None
59) The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirement’s implementation, without consideration of the requirement’s impact on the business.
A) True
B) False
60) The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is to your business
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) A,
2) D,
3) A,
4) B,
5) C,
6) A,
7) C,
8) B,
9) B,
10) B
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Quality Center Questions 7
61) During Requirement Risks calculation, the ..... displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis
A) missing assessment link
B) missing assessment field
C) missing assessment value
D) missing assessment relation
62) A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ....... in the testing process.
A) at the beginning
B) at the end
C) at the point
D) at the middle
63) Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.
A) Design Test Steps
B) Design Tests
C) Automate Tests
D) Define Testing Policy Settings
64) You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key .....
A) F7
B) F9
C) F12
D) F11
65) To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ......, and enter the test ID
A) Test > Go to Test
B) Test > find Test
C) Test > search Test
D) Test > link Test
66) In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid
A) True,
B) False
67) You can use the ..... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.
A) text editor
B) script editor
C) scriptor editor
D) scripts editor
68) The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide your application according to ........
A) functionality
B) requirements
C) test plans
D) test modules
69) During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan tree ......
A) at the beginning
B) at the end
C) at any time
D) in the middle
70) Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ......
A) IDs
B) requirements
C) permissions
D) passwords
Answers
1) A,
2) C,
3) D,
4) B,
5) A,
6) A,
7) B,
8) A,
9) C,
10) C
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Quality Center Questions 8
71) To set a QuickTest Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose ......
A) Template Test
B) Template Tree
C) Template Plan
D) Template
72) You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.
A) True
B) False
73) A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is ....... on your machine.
A) not activated
B) not installed
C) not enabled
D) not set
74) A ...... link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.
A) Link To Test
B) Move To Test
C) Go To Test
D) Test
75) In the Test Plan module, you create ....... by selecting requirements to link to a test.
A) RTM
B) requirements coverage
C) test coverage
D) SRS
76) Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create ...... by selecting tests to link to a requirement.
A) RTM
B) requirements coverage
C) test coverage
D) SRS
77) A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.
A) True
B) False
78) You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this feature using the ........... parameter in Site Administration
A) ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B) ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C) ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D) None of above
79) Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added
requirements coverage, it may already exist.
A) True
B) False
80) You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.
A) True
B) False
Answers
71) A,
72) A,
73) B,
74) C,
75) B,
76) C,
77) B,
78) A,
79) A,
80)
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Quality Center Questions 9
81) Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test.
A) True
B) False
82) In the Requirements module, you can use the ........ view to examine the status of your requirements.
A) Coverage Analysis
B) Coverage Breakdown
C) Requirements Status
D) Coverage Status
83) By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types: ......
A) Functional, Testing, and Defined.
B) Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C) Functional, System, and Undefined.
D) Functional, Review, and Undefined.
84) You can create design steps for ..........
A) manual and
B) automated tests
C) SRS
D) Both A and B
85) To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ........to the called test and to the tests that call it.
A) Input Values
B) Output Values
C) Parameters
D) None of above
86) You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.
A) True,
B) False
87) If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you are prompted to do so when you call this test from another test, when you add your test to a test set, or when you run your test.
A) True
B) False
88) You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use ...... to access the first step.
A) ALT+LEFT
B) ALT+RIGHT
C) ALT+HOME
D) ALT+ UP
89) While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.
A) A test that is created by Winrunner
B) A test that is executed by Winrunner
C) A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D) None of above
90) To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.
A) True
B) False
Answers
81) B,
82) A,
83) B,
84) D,
85) C,
86) A,
87) A,
88) C,
89) B,
90) B
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Quality Center Questions 10
91) Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of ....
A) Run Tests Automatically
B) Run Tests Manually
C) Both A and B
D) None of above
92) You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key......
A) F6
B) F7
C) F8
D) F9
93) The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:
A) Test Set and Select Tests
B) Test Select and Set Tests
C) Set Test and Tests Select
D) None of above
94) In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means
A) The date on which the test was first executed.
B) The date on which the test was last executed
C) The date on which the test was executed
D) The date on which the test will be executed in future
95) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid.
A) True
B) False
96) You can organize test execution by creating ........
A) test modules
B) test flows
C) test beds
D) test sets
97) While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a ..........
A) test sets tree
B) test sets flow
C) test sets grid
D) test sets rows
98) By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ..........
A) Level 0 folder
B) Top folder
C) Highest level folder
D) Root folder
99) You can also use the ............. in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a test set.
A) Run Events view
B) Run Events Grid
C) Run Events menu
D) Run Events module
100) You can also drag the test sets between lists.
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) C,
2) D,
3) A,
4) B,
5) A,
6) D,
7) A,
8) D,
9) A,
10) A
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Quality Center Questions 11
101)
The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control the way your tests are executed.
A) True
B) False
102)
In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test
A) is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.
B) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D) None
103)
You can delete a ....execution condition(s) connected to a test.
A) Single
B) Two
C) Three
D) All
104)
When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is selected
A) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execute Grid)
B) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Executing Grid)
C) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execution Grid)
D) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execution Grind)
105)
You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A) True
B) False
106)
If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.
A) True
B) False
107)
You can run tests automatically on ......
A) Your machine
B) Remote Hosts
C) Both A & B
D) None
108)
To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.
A) Auto Runner
B) Automate Runner
C) Automatic Runner
D) Manual Runner
109)
When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.
A) True
B) False
110)
You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.
A) True
B) False
Answers
101) a,
102) a,
103) d,
104) c,
105) b,
106) a,
107) c,
108) c,
109) a,
110) b
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Quality Center Questions 12
111)
You can view the test results from the ...........
A) Test Instance dialog box.
B) Test Properties dialog box
C) Test Instance Properties dialog box
D) None
112)
The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:
A) linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance
B) only linked defects for a test instance
C) linked defects and history for a test instance
D) linked defects and test results for a test instance
113)
Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.
A) True
B) False
114)
In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an automated test instance using the ..... view.
A) Automated
B) Details
C) Run Events
D) Both A & C
115)
You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the ...... button on the sidebar.
A) Track Defects
B) Open Defects
C) Defects
D) Log Defects
116)
To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ....
A) Defects > Defect
B) Defects > Move To Defect
C) Defects > Set Defect
D) Defects > Go To Defect
117)
Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.
A) True
B) False
118)
You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.
A) True
B) False
119)
You can use the ......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.
A) Scripting Editor
B) Notepad Editor
C) QC Editor
D) Script Editor
120)
You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.
A) True
B) False
Answers
111) c,
112) a,
113) a,
114) c,
115) c,
116) d,
117) a,
118) b,
119) d,
120) a
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Quality Center Questions 13
121)
You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.
A) True
B) False
122)
There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:
A) Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B) Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C) Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D) Find all Defects & Find all Text.
123)
You can update defects directly in the ......, or in the ..... dialog box.
A) Defects Grid
B) Defects Detail
C) Defects Module
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C
124)
You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project administrator in Project Customization.
A) True
B) False
125)
By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send
e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A) M_FORMAT
B) MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C) MAIL_FORM
D) MAIL_FORMAT
126)
You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A) True
B) False
127)
You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.
A) True
B) False
128)
Quality Center reports can be generated from the
A) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B) Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C) Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.
129)
You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the
A) Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B) Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.
130)
How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports) are available in Requirements module.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 4
Answers
121) A ,
122) C ,
123) D,
124) A ,
125) D ,
126) A ,
127) A ,
128) A ,
129) C ,
130) B
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Quality Center Questions 14
131)
Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the .........
A) Requirements module
B) Test Plan module
C) Test Lab module
D) Defects module
E) Both A & C
F) All of Above
132)
Requirements -Summary Graph
A) Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during a period of time.
B) Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C) Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D) Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.
133)
By default, the graph appears as a
A) pie chart,
B) bar chart
C) Pareto chart
D) Both A & B
134)
You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.
A) True
B) False
135)
You can determine how information appears in the graph using the .....
A) graph toolbar.
B) graph settings
C) graph menu
D) Both A & C
136)
..... graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical representation of data related to test plans and test sets.
A) Live Value
B) Live Analysis
C) Live Analytics
D) Both A & C
137)
You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a .... folder.
A) test subject
B) test set
C) test category
D) Both A & B
138)
The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.
A) True
B) False
139)
The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document containing a project’s requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.
A) True
B) False
140)
The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality Center project.
A) True
B) False
Answers
131) F ,
132) C ,
133) B,
134) A ,
135) A ,
136) B ,
137) D ,
138) A ,
139) A ,
140) A
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Quality Center Questions 15
141)
You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is available for other users in the current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.
A) True
B) False
142)
While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to .... header levels in the table of contents.
A) Seven
B) Eight
C) Nine
D) Ten
143)
You use the ...... pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.
A) Subject Tree
B) Subject Tests
C) Subject plans
D) Both A & B
144)
You use the ........ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.
A) Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
B) Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C) Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D) Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
145)
You can generate a ...... that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.
A) view project document
B) preview project document
C) pre project document
D) None
146)
You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.
A) True
B) False
147)
You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.
A) True
B) False
148)
Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.
A) True
B) False
149)
After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating .... to extract the data.
A) Test Queries
B) Lotus Queries
C) Excel Macros
D) SQL queries
150)
To view the database type used for your project database, click the... button.
A) Database in use
B) Database Type
C) Get Database
D) Database version
Answers
141) B ,
142) C ,
143) D,
144) D ,
145) B ,
146) A ,
147) B ,
148) B ,
149) D ,
150) B
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Quality Center Questions 16 - Basics
1)
You access Quality Center over the ......, via a Web browser.
A) Internet
B) a corporate intranet
C) Mobile Internet
D) Both A & B
2)
Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application
defects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until
resolution.
A) True
B) False
3)
Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:
A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.
4)
Each Quality Center project is supported by a ...... that stores project information.
A) Root folder
B) Database
C) Flat File
D) Both B & C
5)
Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The ..... determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A) QC group
B) user_Account group
C) Account group
D) user group
6)
You can import data from...... to a Quality Center project.
A) Word or Notepad
B) Word or Wordpad
C) Word or Excel
D) Word or Power Point
7)
You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A) True
B) False
8)
Quality Center prompts you to install ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.
A) Microsoft Java 2.0
B) Microsoft Visio 13.0
C) Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D) Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0
9)
Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects
10)
When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A) True
B) False
11)
The ..... can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.
A) site administer
B) site Controller
C) site Analyser
D) site administrator
12)
Quality Center organizes and displays data in ......:
A) grids
B) trees
C) Folders
D) Both A & B
13)
You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear,
and by changing column size.
A) True
B) False
14)
You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet
the criteria that you define.
A) True
B) False
15)
When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced
....... on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or
defects.
A) Secondary filter
B) Primary filter
C) cross filter
D) Second filter
16)
By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ....
A) Increasing order
B) Decreasing order
C) order in which they were added.
D) order in which they were deleted.
17)
You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the
Clipboard.
A) True
B) False
18)
You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ........
A) Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B) Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C) Requirements and Defects modules.
D) Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.
19)
If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module
A) True
B) False
20)
Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A) True
B) False
21)
You can export the data in a grid as a ......
A) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C) text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D) Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
22)
When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.
A) True
B) False
23)
A ..... indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.
A) Green flag
B) Pink flag
C) red flag
D) Blue flag
24)
Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications. You can use ..... flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.
A) Alert Me
B) follow up
C) follow Me
D) follow
25)
Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.
A) True
B) False
26)
You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.
A) True
B) False
27)
A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.
A) True
B) False
28)
A ....... is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A) Personal view
B) My view
C) favorite view
D) fav view
29)
By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ....... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A) FAVORITES_DEPTH
B) FAVORITES-DEPTH
C) FAVORITE_DEPTH
D) FAVORITE_DEPTHS
30)
You save favorite views in either a .... folder or a ..... folder. Views in a
.... folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ..... folder are accessible only to the user who created them.
A) public, private, public, private
B) Root, Base, Root, Base,
C) locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D) Both B & C
Answers
1) D ,
2) A ,
3) B,
4) B ,
5) D ,
6) C ,
7) A ,
8) D ,
9) B ,
10) A,
11) D ,
12) D,
13) B,
14) A,
15) C,
16) C,
17 B,
18) A,
19) A,
20) A,
21) A,
22) A,
23) C,
24) B,
25) A,
26) A,
27) A,
28) C,
29) A,
30) A
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Quality Center Questions 17 - Release Management
1)
You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in the.......
A) Requirements module
B) Releases module
C) Plan Tests module
D) Either B or C
2)
Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.
A) True
B) False
3)
A release represents a ..... in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution at the same time.
A) group of releases
B) group of changes
C) group of defects
D) group of requests
4)
After defining the release, a QA manager defines ...... A ..... is a set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.
A) cycles, cycle
B) Tries, Try
C) Priorities, Priority
D) Files, File
5)
After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the........ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.
A) Plans
B) groups of plans
C) upcoming modules
D) requirements
6)
After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each..... folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.
A) test sets
B) test set
C) tests set
D) testing set
7)
A ...... is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific test goals.
A) test sets
B) test set
C) tests set
D) testing set
8)
A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing process.
A) True
B) False
9)
While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate ..........
A) release and cycle
B) cycle and release
C) defect and cycle
D) cycle and defect
10)
The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.
A) True
B) False
11)
In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are ..... throughout the release.
A) run
B) covered
C) passed
D) assigned
12)
The ....... helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number ofdefects submitted over the course of a release or cycle.
A) Details tab
B) Attachments tabC) Progress tab
D) Quality tab
13)
The defects arecategorized by ...... in terms of how they impact system operation.
A) Priority
B) severity
14)
You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in thereleases tree.
A) True
B) False
15)
The Releases root folder can also bemoved.
A) True
B) False
16)
You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.
A) True
B) False
17)
Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns theassociated requirements, test set folders, and defects.
A) True
B) False
18)
You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in thereleases tree by dragging it.
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) B ,
2) A ,
3) B,
4) A ,
5) D ,
6) B ,
7) B ,
8) A ,
9) A ,
10) B,
11) B ,
12) D,
13) B,
14) A,
15) B,
16) A,
17 B,
18) A
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Quality Center Questions 18 - Requirements Specification
1)
After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue the
application testing process by specifying ........
A) Requirements
B) Releases
C) Plan Tests
D) Either B or A
2)
Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a requirements ......
A) graph
B) tree
C) Path
D) plan
3)
The requirements ....... is a graphical representation of your requirements specification, displaying the hierarchical relationship between different requirements.
A) graph
B) plan
C) Path
D) tree
4)
For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of ....... in the requirements tree.
A) detailed requirements
B) detailed specifications
C) detailed plans
D) detailed sub-requirements
5)
Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant attachments.
A) True
B) False
6)
After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, ....... shows the other requirements that the change might affect.
A) equality
B) link-ability
C) traceability
D) cross-links
7)
QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases module.
A) True
B) False
8)
The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create ......
A) linkages
B) linked-requirements
C) requirements plan
D) coverage
9)
QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed
status to a ..... status once it is approved.
A) Passed
B) Reviewed
C) Partially reviewed
D) Both B & C
10)
You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ........
A) Microsoft Word
B) Excel
C) other third-party requirement management tools
D) All of above
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11)
In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has
A) attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B) attachments, linked defects, alerts
C) attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D) linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
12)
To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose ............., and enter the requirement ID.
A) Requirements > Find Requirement
B) Requirements > Go to Requirement
C) Requirements > Get Requirement
D) Requirements > Display Requirement
13)
The Requirements ...... view enables you to display requirements in a flat
non-hierarchical view. Each line in the .... displays a separate requirement.
A) File, file
B) hierarchical, hierarchy
c) Grid, Grid
D) Both B & C
14)
The ... Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test ..... status.
A) Plan
B) Requirement
C) Coverage
D) Task
15)
You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ....
A) F6
B) F7
C) F8
D) F9
16)
The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means
A) The current status of the requirement
B) The previous status of the requirement
C) The coming status of the requirement
D) The fixed status of the requirement
17)
You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module.
A) True
B) False
18)
You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.
A) True
B) False
19)
You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.
A) True
B) False
20)
You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.
A) True
B) False
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21)
You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the ....... command.
A) Search
B) Find
C) Look
D) Get
22)
You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
A) True
B) False
23)
You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between projects.
A) True
B) False
24)
Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.
A) True
B) False
25)
Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A) Convert Requirements to Tests
B) Generate a Test from Requirements.
C) Get a test from a requirement
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C
26)
Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A) Trace from, Trace to
B) Trace to, Trace from
C) Trace from select, Trace to select
D) Trace to select, Trace from select
27)
When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.
A) True
B) False
28)
You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ...... tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.
A) traceability
B) Relationships
C) Req-traceability
D) traceability-Req
29)
The ...... feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.
A) Level-based quality management
B) Calculate-based quality management
C) risk-based quality management
D) None of above
30)
You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its .....
A) Business Criticality & Failure Probability
B) Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C) Priority & Severity
D) None of above
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31)
Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:
A) First, second, third, and fourth
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D) Partial,Basic, moderate and Advanced
32)
The ...... link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.
A) missing risk assessment
B) miss assessment
C) missing assessment
D) exclude assessment
Answers
1) A ,
2) B ,
3) D,
4) A ,
5) B ,
6) C ,
7) A ,
8) D ,
9) B ,
10) D,
11) A ,
12) B,
13) C,
14) C,
15) D,
16) A,
17 A,
18) A,
19 A),
20) B,
21) B,
22) A,
23) B,
24) A
25) D ,
26) A,
27) A,
28) B,
29) C,
30) A,
31) B,
32) C
HP QC Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M15) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
Thursday, March 25, 2010
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library
steps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools
32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would
use from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows
33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View
35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4
36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R
37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b
38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current
line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current
line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not
displayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9
Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
1) 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings
(File->Settings) window.
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings
2) How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8
3) Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web
Settings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,
Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
4) 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)
window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery
5) The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
6) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a
corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above
7) You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False
8) You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the
Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False
9) The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and
insert checkpoints
A) True
B) False
10) A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information
saved with the test.
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) C, 2) A, 3) A, 4) A, 5) b, 6) A, 7) A, 8) A, 9) A, 10) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
11) The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:
A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors
12) When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP
automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the
information pane.
A) True
B) False
13) If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in
case a syntax error is detected.
A) True
B) False
14) ..................... provides a list of the resources that are
specified in your test but cannot be found.
A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane
15) Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically
checks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False
16) The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
B) False
17) Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command
18) ............... tab enables you to view the current value of any
variable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current
19) The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that have
been recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current
20) The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set or
modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test
or function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current
Answers
1) B, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) A, 16) B, 17) C, 18) A, 19) B, 20) C
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
21) Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False
22) Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests
at a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time
23) Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time
24) You can open any function library, regardless of whether it is
associated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False
25) You can work with multiple documents (test, component, or
application area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows
26) QuickTest has ..... built-in toolbars.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
27) The ......... toolbar contains buttons for recording and running
your test.
A) Standard
B) Tools
C) Automation
D) Edit
28) Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:
A) Shift+Alt+N
B) Ctrl+Alt+N
C) Shift+N
D) CRTL+N
29) Shortcut Key for Closing all open Function Libraries in one go.
A) Ctrl+Alt+C
B) Shift+A+C
B)Shift+N
D) None of these
30) shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows
A) Shift+M
B) Ctrl+C
C) Ctrl+M
D) Shift+C
Answers
21) A, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) D, 27) C, 28) A, 29) D, 30) C
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library
steps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools
32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would
use from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows
33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View
35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4
36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R
37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b
38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current
line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current
line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not
displayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9
Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library
steps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools
32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would
use from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows
33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View
35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4
36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R
37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b
38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current
line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current
line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not
displayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9
Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
41) Object Spy can be found in ........menu.
A) Tool
B) Tools
C) Task
D) Tasks
42) ............ displays the open documents side-by-side.
A) Tile Vertically
B) Tile Horizontally
C) Cascade
D) Tile Cascade
43) For opening the QuickTest Professional Help we can use.......
A) F3
B) F5
C) F1
D) F2
44) If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if it
finds more than one object that matches, QuickTest may use
the............mechanism to identify the object.
A) Ordinal Identifier
B) Index Identifier
C) Smart Identification
D) Assistive Identification
45) You can configure the ........, ............ and ............
properties that QuickTest uses to record descriptions of the objects in
your application
A) mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B) mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C) smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D) Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier
46) The .......... property set for each test object is created and
maintained by QuickTest.
A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object
47)You can access and perform ......... methods using the Object property.
A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object
48) You can view or modify the test object property values that are
stored with your test in the .........
A) Information Pane
B) Data Table
C) Information Pane & Data Table Both
D) Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.
49) You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object during
the run session by adding ..........statements in the Keyword View or
Expert View.
A) GetROProperty & SetROProperty
B) GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C) GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
D) GetROProperty & SetTOProperty
50) If the available test object methods or properties for an object do
not provide the functionality you need, you can access ..............of
any run-time object using the Object property.
A) The internal methods and properties
B) The mandatory methods and properties
C) The selective methods and properties
D) The assistive methods and properties
Answers
41) B, 42) A, 43) C, 44) C, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) D, 49) B, 50) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
51) Using the Object Spy, you can view
A) the run-time or test object properties and methods of any object in
an open application.
B) the run-time or test object properties of any object in an open
application.
C) the test object properties and methods of any object in an open
application.
D) the run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open
application.
52) There are .........object type filters in Object spy dialog box.
A) Two
B)Three
C) Four
D) Five
53) In the Object Spy window, in the Properties Tab
A) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on
it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A) and B)
methods
D) Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible
54) In the Object Spy window, in the methods Tab
A) Copying of Methods is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Methods is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Methods is possible is not possible
55) Object Spy dialog box
A) Can be resized
B) Cannot be resized
56) .............. are the highest level of the test hierarchy in the
Keyword view.
A) Tests
B) Steps
C) Call to Actions
D) Actions
57) You can copy and paste or drag and drop actions to move them to a
different location within a test
A) True
B) False
58) You can print the contents of the Keyword View to your Windows
default printer (and even preview the contents prior to printing).
A) True
B) False
59) In the Keyword View, you can also view properties for items such as
checkpoints.
A) True
B) False
60) In the step Browser > Page > Edit > Set "Sachin", identify container
object(s)
A) Browser
B) Edit
C) Page
D) Both Browser & Page
Answers
51) A, 52) A, 53) A, 54) A, 55) A, 56) D, 57) A, 58) A, 59) A, 60) D
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
61) You can use the Keyword View to add a step ..........in your test.
A) at the end
B) below the currently selected step
C) at the beginning
D) at anypoint
62) The Documentation cell is .............
A) Read-only
B) Write-only
C) Read and Write
D) Read, write & execute
63) An Item column can be any of the following:
A) A test object
B) A statement like Dim
C) A step generated by step generator
D) All of above
64) The Operation cell in the keyword view specifies the operation to be
performed on the item listed in the ........... column.
A) Operation
B) Documentation
C) Item
D) Value
65) Even if the Item column in the Keyword View is displayed to the
right of the Operation column, you must still first select an item to
view the list of available operations in the Operation column.
A) True
B) False
66) The Value cell in the keyword view can contain........ value
A) Constant
B) Parameter
C) Both A) & B)
D) None of these
67)The ............... enables you to encode your passwords and place
secure values into the Data Table.
A) Password Encoder
B) Password Decoder
C) Password Encode
D) Password Decode
68) You can also encrypt strings in Data Table cells using the .........
option in the Data Table menu.
A) Decrypt
B) Encrypt
C) Encrypt Code
D) Decrypt Code
69) In addition to adding standard statement steps to your test using
the Keyword View, you can also insert
A) Checkpoint step
B) Output value step
C) Comment step
D) All of above
70) The correct syntax of the conditiona statement starting with Do is.....
A) Do...While
B) Do...Until
C) Do...Next
D) Both A) and B)
Answers
61) D, 62) A, 63) D, 64) C, 65) A, 66) C, 67) A, 68) B, 69) D, 70) D
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
71) QuickTest processes a comments when it runs a test.
A) True
B) False
72) Press ..... to add a new step below the currently selected step.
A) F8
B) Shift + A
C) F0
D) Shift + A + Q
73) While working with the Keyword View, you can ...... steps to move
them to a different location in a test or in an action
A) Copy and Paste
B) Cut and Paste
C) Drag and drop
D) Both A) and C)
74) You can specify the order in which the columns are displayed in the
Keyword view.
A) True
B) False
75) You can view ....... while working with keyword view.
A) object properties
B) action properties
C) action call properties
D) checkpoint properties
E) Output value properties
F) None of the above
G) All of above
76) You cannot manage some aspects of a local object repository using
the QuickTest Object Repository automation object model..
A) True
B) False
77) For each action, you can use a combination of objects from your
local and shared object repositories.
A) True
B) False
78) QuickTest adds all new objects to the local object repository even
if one or more shared object repositories are already associated with
the action assuming that an object with the same description does not
already exist in one of the associated shared object repositories..
A) True
B) False
79) If a child object is added to a local object repository, and its
parents are in a shared object repository, then you have to manually
drag and drop its parent objects from shared object repository to local
object repository.
A) True
B) False
80) The ....... is not accessible as a separate file
A) local object repository
B) shared object repository
C) Both
D) None
Answers
71) B, 72) A, 73) D, 74) A, 75) G, 76) B, 77) A, 78) A, 79) B, 80) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
81) In the Object Repository window:.
A) Local objects are editable (black)
B) Shared objects are in read-only format (gray)
C) Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D) Shared objects are editable (black)
82) Mark true statement(s):.
A) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository window.
B) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager
83) You can modify an object stored in a shared object repository.
A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) using the Object Repository window
C) you can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D) you cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository
84) If an object is contained in both local and shared repositories then, during a run session.
A) QuickTest will use the object in the local object repository
B) QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C) There will be a conflict
D) QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming
85) When you copy an object to the local object repository
A) its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
B) its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C) You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D) You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects
86) For tests, you can also view test object properties and property values for objects in the Active Screen, regardless of whether the objects are
stored in the object repository.
A) True
B) False
87) Object Properties window differs for objects stored in Shared and Local object repository.
A) True
B) False
88) You can rename objects in the shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager
A) True
B) False, you cannot rename objects in shared object repository
89) When you modify the name of an object in the local object repository, the name is automatically updated in ....... for all occurrences of the object..
A) in the Keyword View
B) in the Expert View
C) Both Keyword and Expert View
D) Changing name of an object doest not effect keyword or expert view
90) When you modify the name of an object in a shared repository, the name is automatically updated in all tests open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the change, even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.
A) True
B) False
Answers
81) A,B, 82) C,D, 83) A,C, 84) A, 85) A, 86) A, 87) A, 88) A, 89) C, 90) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
91) An ........ assigns a numerical value to a test object that indicates its order or location relative to other objects with an otherwise identical description (objects that have the same values for all properties)
A) Index identifier.
B) ordinal identifier.
C) SMART ID identifier.
D) original identifier.
92) You can add an object to the local object repository only if that object does not already exist in a shared object repository that is associated with the action. If an object already exists in an associated shared object repository, you can add it to the local object repository using the ........ option.
A) Copy from Shared Repository
B) Copy from Shared Object Repository
C) Copy to Local
D) Copy to Local repository
93) You can copy, paste, and move objects in the local object repository using the Object Repository window, and copy, paste, and move objects both within a shared object repository and between shared object repositories using the Object Repository Manager. But you cannot copy objects from a shared object repository to the local object repository to modify them locally
A) True
B) False
94) At the time of copying, pasting and moving objects, you cannot move an object to any of its descendants.
A) True
B) False
95) When you remove a step from your test, its corresponding object is also removed from the object repository
A) True
B) False
96) You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A) True
B) False
97) The Object Repository window is ...... during record and run sessions
A) read-only
B) read-write only
C) read-write and enable
D) None of above
98) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, the ......object repository is always listed first and cannot be moved down the priority list or deleted.
A) local
B) shared
C) Both
D) None
99) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, although we can order the object repositories according to our choice except the fact that Shared Repository remains the first one and cannot be removed.
A) True
B) False
100) If your object repositories are stored in the file system and you want other users or Mercury products to be able to run this action on other computers, you should set the file path as a
A) Absolute path
B) relative path
C) both
D) None of above
Answers
91) B, 92) C, 93) B, 94) A, 95) B, 96) B, 97) A, 98) A, 99) B, 100) B
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1) You cannot expand ...... actions from the test flow
view.
A) reusable
B) non-reusable
C) both A & B
D) None
2) You can associate shared object repositories with
...... actions simultaneously, using the Associate
Repositories dialog box
A) seven
B) Two
C) Three
D) Multiple
3) You can associate ....... object repositories with
an action, and the same object repository can be
associated with different actions as needed
A) Nine
B) Twenty one
C) as many as you need
D) Twelve
4) Sometimes you may want to call an action from
within an action. This is called .......
A) Reusability
B) Nesting
C) Sharing
D) None
5) If a reusable action is called more than once in a
test and you split the action into two independent
actions, each call to the action within the test will be
followed by a call to the new (reusable) action. If a
reusable action is called from another test, however,
...... it may cause the calling test to fail.
A) Nesting
B) Splitting
C) Reusing
D) Both A & C
6) You must use the ...... Action option in QuickTest
if you want to save an action under another name.
A) Resave
B) Rename
C) Reuse
D) Split
7) When you remove an external action, you remove all
calls and the action from the action list. The original
action is also affected.
A) True
B) False
8) You can also press ...... to open the Rename Action
dialog box
A) Shift + F2
B) Shift + F3
C) Shift + F4
D) Shift + F5
9) If you want to include one or more statements in
every new action in your test, you can create an ....
A) reusable action
B) split action
C) Function
D) action template
11) Only the file name ...... is recognized as an
action template
A) ActionTemplate.mst
B) Action_Template.mst
C) Action-Template.mst
D) ActionTemplates.mst
Answers:
1) a 2) d 3) c 4) b 5) b 6) b 7) b 8) a 9) d 11) a
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
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1. When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B. .TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
2. What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
3. In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
4. What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
5. In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
6. Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
7. Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
8. After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an
output parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
9. If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what
must you do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
10. Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data
Table during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B B B D B C C A
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1) You can import and export object repositories from
and to .... files.
A) XML
B) MTS
C) TSR
D) XLS
2) In general, the ....... object repository is
easiest to use when you are creating simple record and
run tests.
A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None
3) The Object Repository automation object model
enables you to manipulate QuickTest ....... object
repositories and their contents from outside of
QuickTest.
A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None
4) Before using the Object Repository automation
object model to manipulate shared object repository
stored in Quality Center, you must download the shared
object repository and save it to the file system.
A) True
B) False
5) SetTOProperty changes the property values used to
identify an object during the test run. It also effects
the values saved in the Object Repository for the
object.
A) True
B) False
6) After creating or editing an object repository XML
file, it is recommended to use the QuickTest
..........functionality to verify that your file
conforms to the QuickTest object repository schema.
A) Schema Verification
B) Schema Validation
C) XML Validation
D) XML Verification
7) To display the Comment in the Object Repository
dialog box, you must use the attribute name .........
A) miccommentproperty
B) commentproperty
C) mic_comment_property
D) None of above
8) ObjectRepositoryUtil Object Enables you to
manipulate .....object repository files from outside of
QuickTest Professional.
A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None
9) You can use the Object Repository Merge Tool to
merge objects from ......
A) two shared object repositories into a single shared
object repository.
B) the local object repository of one or more actions or
components into a shared object repository.
C) Both A & B
D) None
10) GetTOProperty method returns the value of a
specified property for a test object from the Object
Repository.
A) True
B) False
Answers:
1)a 2)b 3)a 4)a 5)b 6)b 7)a 8)c 9)c 10)a
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
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1) The new Object Repository Comparison Tool is
accessible from the Object Repository Manager. You can
use this tool to identify the differences between
objects in ........
A) two specified shared object repository files.
B) a Shared and a Local object repository files.
C) either Shared or Local object repository files.
D) two specified Local object repository files.
2) You can use the objects and methods of the
QuickTest .................... to write scripts that
automatically manipulate object repositories, instead of
performing these operations manually using the Object
Repository Manager.
A) Automation object model
B) Object Repository automation object model
C) Object Repository model
D) Object Repository Script Object model
3) You must convert object repository files from
QuickTest Professional 8.2.1 or earlier to the current
format before you can use them in QuickTest Professional
9.0 or later. Which method lets you do so.
A) Conversion method
B) Converge method
C) Convert method
D) None
4) You open the Object Repository window for a
specific component by choosing ..........
A) Resources > Object Repository
B) Tools > Object Repository
C) File > Object Repository
D) Help > Object Repository
5) In QTP 9 or above, Test objects can be stored in
two types of object repositories—........
A) a shared object repository and a Per-Action object
repository.
B) a shared object repository and a local object
repository.
C) a shared object repository and a Action object
repository.
D) Both A & C
6) The Object Repository Manager enables you to open
...... shared object repositories and modify them as
needed
A) multiple
B) three
C) two
D) Seven
7) ........ Method Loads the specified object
repository.
A) Overload
B) Load
C) Both A & B
D) None
8) An object repository that is currently open by
another user is locked, is it possible to merge a locked
object repository.
A) Yes
B) No
9) You can manage the shared object repository
associations of a selected test using the ............
A) Associate Repositories dialog box
B) Object Repositories dialog box
C) Associate Repositories Manager dialog box
D) Object Repositories Manager dialog box
10) All changes you make to an object repository are
automatically updated in all components open on the same
computer that use the object repository as soon as you
make the change—even if you have not yet saved the
object repository with your changes.
A) True
B) False
11) If you want to modify an object stored in a shared
object repository, you can modify it.......
A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) you can modify it locally using the Object Repository
window.
C) Both A & B
D) None of above
12) ................ Returns an ObjectRepositories
collection representing all object repository files
associated with the action.
A) Object Property
B) Automation Object Model
C) ObjectRepositories Property
D) OR PropertyAnswers
Answers:
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) a 5) b 6) a 7) b 8) a 9) a 10) a 11) c 12)c
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library
steps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools
32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would
use from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows
33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View
35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4
36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R
37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b
38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current
line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current
line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not
displayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9
Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
1) 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings
(File->Settings) window.
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings
2) How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8
3) Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web
Settings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,
Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
4) 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)
window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery
5) The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
6) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a
corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above
7) You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False
8) You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the
Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False
9) The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and
insert checkpoints
A) True
B) False
10) A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information
saved with the test.
A) True
B) False
Answers
1) C, 2) A, 3) A, 4) A, 5) b, 6) A, 7) A, 8) A, 9) A, 10) A
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11) The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:
A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors
12) When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP
automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the
information pane.
A) True
B) False
13) If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in
case a syntax error is detected.
A) True
B) False
14) ..................... provides a list of the resources that are
specified in your test but cannot be found.
A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane
15) Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically
checks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False
16) The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
B) False
17) Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command
18) ............... tab enables you to view the current value of any
variable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current
19) The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that have
been recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current
20) The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set or
modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test
or function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current
Answers
1) B, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) A, 16) B, 17) C, 18) A, 19) B, 20) C
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21) Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False
22) Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests
at a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time
23) Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time
24) You can open any function library, regardless of whether it is
associated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False
25) You can work with multiple documents (test, component, or
application area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows
26) QuickTest has ..... built-in toolbars.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
27) The ......... toolbar contains buttons for recording and running
your test.
A) Standard
B) Tools
C) Automation
D) Edit
28) Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:
A) Shift+Alt+N
B) Ctrl+Alt+N
C) Shift+N
D) CRTL+N
29) Shortcut Key for Closing all open Function Libraries in one go.
A) Ctrl+Alt+C
B) Shift+A+C
B)Shift+N
D) None of these
30) shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows
A) Shift+M
B) Ctrl+C
C) Ctrl+M
D) Shift+C
Answers
21) A, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) D, 27) C, 28) A, 29) D, 30) C
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library
steps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools
32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would
use from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows
33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View
35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4
36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R
37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b
38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current
line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current
line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not
displayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9
Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
By Jigar Gosai, India, Contact# +91-9825118192
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library
steps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools
32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would
use from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows
33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View
35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4
36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R
37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b
38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current
line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current
line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not
displayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9
Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
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41) Object Spy can be found in ........menu.
A) Tool
B) Tools
C) Task
D) Tasks
42) ............ displays the open documents side-by-side.
A) Tile Vertically
B) Tile Horizontally
C) Cascade
D) Tile Cascade
43) For opening the QuickTest Professional Help we can use.......
A) F3
B) F5
C) F1
D) F2
44) If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if it
finds more than one object that matches, QuickTest may use
the............mechanism to identify the object.
A) Ordinal Identifier
B) Index Identifier
C) Smart Identification
D) Assistive Identification
45) You can configure the ........, ............ and ............
properties that QuickTest uses to record descriptions of the objects in
your application
A) mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B) mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C) smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D) Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier
46) The .......... property set for each test object is created and
maintained by QuickTest.
A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object
47)You can access and perform ......... methods using the Object property.
A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object
48) You can view or modify the test object property values that are
stored with your test in the .........
A) Information Pane
B) Data Table
C) Information Pane & Data Table Both
D) Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.
49) You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object during
the run session by adding ..........statements in the Keyword View or
Expert View.
A) GetROProperty & SetROProperty
B) GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C) GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
D) GetROProperty & SetTOProperty
50) If the available test object methods or properties for an object do
not provide the functionality you need, you can access ..............of
any run-time object using the Object property.
A) The internal methods and properties
B) The mandatory methods and properties
C) The selective methods and properties
D) The assistive methods and properties
Answers
41) B, 42) A, 43) C, 44) C, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) D, 49) B, 50) A
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51) Using the Object Spy, you can view
A) the run-time or test object properties and methods of any object in
an open application.
B) the run-time or test object properties of any object in an open
application.
C) the test object properties and methods of any object in an open
application.
D) the run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open
application.
52) There are .........object type filters in Object spy dialog box.
A) Two
B)Three
C) Four
D) Five
53) In the Object Spy window, in the Properties Tab
A) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on
it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A) and B)
methods
D) Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible
54) In the Object Spy window, in the methods Tab
A) Copying of Methods is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Methods is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Methods is possible is not possible
55) Object Spy dialog box
A) Can be resized
B) Cannot be resized
56) .............. are the highest level of the test hierarchy in the
Keyword view.
A) Tests
B) Steps
C) Call to Actions
D) Actions
57) You can copy and paste or drag and drop actions to move them to a
different location within a test
A) True
B) False
58) You can print the contents of the Keyword View to your Windows
default printer (and even preview the contents prior to printing).
A) True
B) False
59) In the Keyword View, you can also view properties for items such as
checkpoints.
A) True
B) False
60) In the step Browser > Page > Edit > Set "Sachin", identify container
object(s)
A) Browser
B) Edit
C) Page
D) Both Browser & Page
Answers
51) A, 52) A, 53) A, 54) A, 55) A, 56) D, 57) A, 58) A, 59) A, 60) D
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61) You can use the Keyword View to add a step ..........in your test.
A) at the end
B) below the currently selected step
C) at the beginning
D) at anypoint
62) The Documentation cell is .............
A) Read-only
B) Write-only
C) Read and Write
D) Read, write & execute
63) An Item column can be any of the following:
A) A test object
B) A statement like Dim
C) A step generated by step generator
D) All of above
64) The Operation cell in the keyword view specifies the operation to be
performed on the item listed in the ........... column.
A) Operation
B) Documentation
C) Item
D) Value
65) Even if the Item column in the Keyword View is displayed to the
right of the Operation column, you must still first select an item to
view the list of available operations in the Operation column.
A) True
B) False
66) The Value cell in the keyword view can contain........ value
A) Constant
B) Parameter
C) Both A) & B)
D) None of these
67)The ............... enables you to encode your passwords and place
secure values into the Data Table.
A) Password Encoder
B) Password Decoder
C) Password Encode
D) Password Decode
68) You can also encrypt strings in Data Table cells using the .........
option in the Data Table menu.
A) Decrypt
B) Encrypt
C) Encrypt Code
D) Decrypt Code
69) In addition to adding standard statement steps to your test using
the Keyword View, you can also insert
A) Checkpoint step
B) Output value step
C) Comment step
D) All of above
70) The correct syntax of the conditiona statement starting with Do is.....
A) Do...While
B) Do...Until
C) Do...Next
D) Both A) and B)
Answers
61) D, 62) A, 63) D, 64) C, 65) A, 66) C, 67) A, 68) B, 69) D, 70) D
QTP Certification Sample Papers (HP0-M16) dumps
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71) QuickTest processes a comments when it runs a test.
A) True
B) False
72) Press ..... to add a new step below the currently selected step.
A) F8
B) Shift + A
C) F0
D) Shift + A + Q
73) While working with the Keyword View, you can ...... steps to move
them to a different location in a test or in an action
A) Copy and Paste
B) Cut and Paste
C) Drag and drop
D) Both A) and C)
74) You can specify the order in which the columns are displayed in the
Keyword view.
A) True
B) False
75) You can view ....... while working with keyword view.
A) object properties
B) action properties
C) action call properties
D) checkpoint properties
E) Output value properties
F) None of the above
G) All of above
76) You cannot manage some aspects of a local object repository using
the QuickTest Object Repository automation object model..
A) True
B) False
77) For each action, you can use a combination of objects from your
local and shared object repositories.
A) True
B) False
78) QuickTest adds all new objects to the local object repository even
if one or more shared object repositories are already associated with
the action assuming that an object with the same description does not
already exist in one of the associated shared object repositories..
A) True
B) False
79) If a child object is added to a local object repository, and its
parents are in a shared object repository, then you have to manually
drag and drop its parent objects from shared object repository to local
object repository.
A) True
B) False
80) The ....... is not accessible as a separate file
A) local object repository
B) shared object repository
C) Both
D) None
Answers
71) B, 72) A, 73) D, 74) A, 75) G, 76) B, 77) A, 78) A, 79) B, 80) A
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81) In the Object Repository window:.
A) Local objects are editable (black)
B) Shared objects are in read-only format (gray)
C) Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D) Shared objects are editable (black)
82) Mark true statement(s):.
A) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository window.
B) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager
83) You can modify an object stored in a shared object repository.
A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) using the Object Repository window
C) you can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D) you cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository
84) If an object is contained in both local and shared repositories then, during a run session.
A) QuickTest will use the object in the local object repository
B) QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C) There will be a conflict
D) QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming
85) When you copy an object to the local object repository
A) its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
B) its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C) You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D) You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects
86) For tests, you can also view test object properties and property values for objects in the Active Screen, regardless of whether the objects are
stored in the object repository.
A) True
B) False
87) Object Properties window differs for objects stored in Shared and Local object repository.
A) True
B) False
88) You can rename objects in the shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager
A) True
B) False, you cannot rename objects in shared object repository
89) When you modify the name of an object in the local object repository, the name is automatically updated in ....... for all occurrences of the object..
A) in the Keyword View
B) in the Expert View
C) Both Keyword and Expert View
D) Changing name of an object doest not effect keyword or expert view
90) When you modify the name of an object in a shared repository, the name is automatically updated in all tests open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the change, even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.
A) True
B) False
Answers
81) A,B, 82) C,D, 83) A,C, 84) A, 85) A, 86) A, 87) A, 88) A, 89) C, 90) A
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91) An ........ assigns a numerical value to a test object that indicates its order or location relative to other objects with an otherwise identical description (objects that have the same values for all properties)
A) Index identifier.
B) ordinal identifier.
C) SMART ID identifier.
D) original identifier.
92) You can add an object to the local object repository only if that object does not already exist in a shared object repository that is associated with the action. If an object already exists in an associated shared object repository, you can add it to the local object repository using the ........ option.
A) Copy from Shared Repository
B) Copy from Shared Object Repository
C) Copy to Local
D) Copy to Local repository
93) You can copy, paste, and move objects in the local object repository using the Object Repository window, and copy, paste, and move objects both within a shared object repository and between shared object repositories using the Object Repository Manager. But you cannot copy objects from a shared object repository to the local object repository to modify them locally
A) True
B) False
94) At the time of copying, pasting and moving objects, you cannot move an object to any of its descendants.
A) True
B) False
95) When you remove a step from your test, its corresponding object is also removed from the object repository
A) True
B) False
96) You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A) True
B) False
97) The Object Repository window is ...... during record and run sessions
A) read-only
B) read-write only
C) read-write and enable
D) None of above
98) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, the ......object repository is always listed first and cannot be moved down the priority list or deleted.
A) local
B) shared
C) Both
D) None
99) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, although we can order the object repositories according to our choice except the fact that Shared Repository remains the first one and cannot be removed.
A) True
B) False
100) If your object repositories are stored in the file system and you want other users or Mercury products to be able to run this action on other computers, you should set the file path as a
A) Absolute path
B) relative path
C) both
D) None of above
Answers
91) B, 92) C, 93) B, 94) A, 95) B, 96) B, 97) A, 98) A, 99) B, 100) B
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1) You cannot expand ...... actions from the test flow
view.
A) reusable
B) non-reusable
C) both A & B
D) None
2) You can associate shared object repositories with
...... actions simultaneously, using the Associate
Repositories dialog box
A) seven
B) Two
C) Three
D) Multiple
3) You can associate ....... object repositories with
an action, and the same object repository can be
associated with different actions as needed
A) Nine
B) Twenty one
C) as many as you need
D) Twelve
4) Sometimes you may want to call an action from
within an action. This is called .......
A) Reusability
B) Nesting
C) Sharing
D) None
5) If a reusable action is called more than once in a
test and you split the action into two independent
actions, each call to the action within the test will be
followed by a call to the new (reusable) action. If a
reusable action is called from another test, however,
...... it may cause the calling test to fail.
A) Nesting
B) Splitting
C) Reusing
D) Both A & C
6) You must use the ...... Action option in QuickTest
if you want to save an action under another name.
A) Resave
B) Rename
C) Reuse
D) Split
7) When you remove an external action, you remove all
calls and the action from the action list. The original
action is also affected.
A) True
B) False
8) You can also press ...... to open the Rename Action
dialog box
A) Shift + F2
B) Shift + F3
C) Shift + F4
D) Shift + F5
9) If you want to include one or more statements in
every new action in your test, you can create an ....
A) reusable action
B) split action
C) Function
D) action template
11) Only the file name ...... is recognized as an
action template
A) ActionTemplate.mst
B) Action_Template.mst
C) Action-Template.mst
D) ActionTemplates.mst
Answers:
1) a 2) d 3) c 4) b 5) b 6) b 7) b 8) a 9) d 11) a
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1. When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B. .TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
2. What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
3. In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
4. What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
5. In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
6. Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
7. Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
8. After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an
output parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
9. If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what
must you do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
10. Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data
Table during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B B B D B C C A
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1) You can import and export object repositories from
and to .... files.
A) XML
B) MTS
C) TSR
D) XLS
2) In general, the ....... object repository is
easiest to use when you are creating simple record and
run tests.
A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None
3) The Object Repository automation object model
enables you to manipulate QuickTest ....... object
repositories and their contents from outside of
QuickTest.
A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None
4) Before using the Object Repository automation
object model to manipulate shared object repository
stored in Quality Center, you must download the shared
object repository and save it to the file system.
A) True
B) False
5) SetTOProperty changes the property values used to
identify an object during the test run. It also effects
the values saved in the Object Repository for the
object.
A) True
B) False
6) After creating or editing an object repository XML
file, it is recommended to use the QuickTest
..........functionality to verify that your file
conforms to the QuickTest object repository schema.
A) Schema Verification
B) Schema Validation
C) XML Validation
D) XML Verification
7) To display the Comment in the Object Repository
dialog box, you must use the attribute name .........
A) miccommentproperty
B) commentproperty
C) mic_comment_property
D) None of above
8) ObjectRepositoryUtil Object Enables you to
manipulate .....object repository files from outside of
QuickTest Professional.
A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None
9) You can use the Object Repository Merge Tool to
merge objects from ......
A) two shared object repositories into a single shared
object repository.
B) the local object repository of one or more actions or
components into a shared object repository.
C) Both A & B
D) None
10) GetTOProperty method returns the value of a
specified property for a test object from the Object
Repository.
A) True
B) False
Answers:
1)a 2)b 3)a 4)a 5)b 6)b 7)a 8)c 9)c 10)a
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1) The new Object Repository Comparison Tool is
accessible from the Object Repository Manager. You can
use this tool to identify the differences between
objects in ........
A) two specified shared object repository files.
B) a Shared and a Local object repository files.
C) either Shared or Local object repository files.
D) two specified Local object repository files.
2) You can use the objects and methods of the
QuickTest .................... to write scripts that
automatically manipulate object repositories, instead of
performing these operations manually using the Object
Repository Manager.
A) Automation object model
B) Object Repository automation object model
C) Object Repository model
D) Object Repository Script Object model
3) You must convert object repository files from
QuickTest Professional 8.2.1 or earlier to the current
format before you can use them in QuickTest Professional
9.0 or later. Which method lets you do so.
A) Conversion method
B) Converge method
C) Convert method
D) None
4) You open the Object Repository window for a
specific component by choosing ..........
A) Resources > Object Repository
B) Tools > Object Repository
C) File > Object Repository
D) Help > Object Repository
5) In QTP 9 or above, Test objects can be stored in
two types of object repositories—........
A) a shared object repository and a Per-Action object
repository.
B) a shared object repository and a local object
repository.
C) a shared object repository and a Action object
repository.
D) Both A & C
6) The Object Repository Manager enables you to open
...... shared object repositories and modify them as
needed
A) multiple
B) three
C) two
D) Seven
7) ........ Method Loads the specified object
repository.
A) Overload
B) Load
C) Both A & B
D) None
8) An object repository that is currently open by
another user is locked, is it possible to merge a locked
object repository.
A) Yes
B) No
9) You can manage the shared object repository
associations of a selected test using the ............
A) Associate Repositories dialog box
B) Object Repositories dialog box
C) Associate Repositories Manager dialog box
D) Object Repositories Manager dialog box
10) All changes you make to an object repository are
automatically updated in all components open on the same
computer that use the object repository as soon as you
make the change—even if you have not yet saved the
object repository with your changes.
A) True
B) False
11) If you want to modify an object stored in a shared
object repository, you can modify it.......
A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) you can modify it locally using the Object Repository
window.
C) Both A & B
D) None of above
12) ................ Returns an ObjectRepositories
collection representing all object repository files
associated with the action.
A) Object Property
B) Automation Object Model
C) ObjectRepositories Property
D) OR PropertyAnswers
Answers:
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) a 5) b 6) a 7) b 8) a 9) a 10) a 11) c 12)c
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